RogueSeventeen 71 Posted November 12, 2019 Hey guys. If Aragorn and Gimli each have Vigilant Guard and Legolas takes two damage from an attack can I pass one damage to Gimli and then one damage to Aragorn and then over to Gimli so that Gimli takes both damage? I assume yes? This card maybe should have been unique. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Wandalf the Gizzard 370 Posted November 12, 2019 It depends on the correct interpretation of "assign" and "place" in regard to damage. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
RogueSeventeen 71 Posted November 13, 2019 Good point. They would most likely (and should) rule assign is different than place. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
sappidus 531 Posted November 13, 2019 (edited) Assigning and placing damage are supposed to happen at different steps of damage dealing, as per RR Damage: Quote The following process is used to deal damage: Determine the amount of damage to deal (including modifiers). Assign the damage to the target (character or enemy). Place the damage on the target (character or enemy). However, the wording on card effects re: damage seems a bit inconsistent. Take this ruling, for example, where the placing of VG seems to be firing the dealing trigger of Mithril Shirt (for now…): I'm not sure what exactly Caleb wants regarding these issues, so I think it's best to ask. FWIW, I'd rule that the OP's scenario is just fine. Edited November 13, 2019 by sappidus 1 1 RogueSeventeen and Wandalf the Gizzard reacted to this Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
