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Basic Question for All you Long-time Veterans of the Game.


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#1 DurinIII

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Posted 02 February 2013 - 08:48 AM

So a question keeps cropping up at our weekly game night: one of our players keeps insisting that if a card costs 0 resources to play, then it is perfectly acceptable to play such a card in any deck, regardless of sphere matching. For example, he might play a Lore/Tactics deck and then splash in 3 copies of Daeron's Runes (a Lore sphere card that costs 0 to play) and argue that he can play it because it has a cost of 0. I have always been under the impression that regardless of the cost of a card, you had to be able to "sphere match" the card's symbol to one of your heroes in order to put that card into play. Am I right in my interpretation, or is he right? I think I know the answer already, but thank you all for your help, of course, I may be wrong afterall.

Joseph



#2 GrandSpleen

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Posted 02 February 2013 - 08:55 AM

This one is clearly stated in the manual:

 

"Cards with a cost of zero do not require a resource to be
spent in order to pay their cost, but they do require
at least one hero under that player’s control to have a
resource icon that matches the card’s sphere." (pg 12)


#3 DurinIII

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Posted 02 February 2013 - 09:17 AM

Exactly; sometimes direct evidence is not enough.






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