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match analysis and clarification


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#1 Chip Damage

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Posted 25 May 2014 - 01:44 AM

Watch "Final - Milano goes to Stahleck 2014 - Game of Th…" on YouTube
Final - Milano goes to Stahleck 2014 - Game of Th…:

At 26:45 they start resolving their plots. Was this done correctly? I thought the palace of sorrows should have resolved in its entirety first and then red wedding, leaving no legal target and therefore nothing resolving. I just wish to understand what exactly occurred here.

#2 ktom

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Posted 25 May 2014 - 02:11 AM

You kind of lost me at "watch this video for 26+ minutes in order to answer the question," so I have no idea what the actual situation is. However, I can tell you the following about the interaction between Palace of the Sorrows and Red Wedding:

With Palace resolving first, it does resolve entirely. However, the cards chosen to be returned to the deck remain on the table, moribund, for the resolution of Red Wedding. So a Lord or Lady character chosen for Palace is still on the table and available to be chosen by the opponent for RW while in the "moribund:deck" state. However, a moribund card cannot be removed from play a second time. That means if one of the two cards chosen for RW is moribund because of Palace, the other MUST be chosen to die (and the moribund character gets 2 power before being put physically on the deck). If both are moribund, neither can be chosen to die and RW stops there.

Like I said, I didn't watch the video. But that's how RW And Palace would work together if Palace went first and returned either the only Lord or the only Lady to the deck.

#3 Chip Damage

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Posted 25 May 2014 - 08:50 AM

Cool cool. That's exactly what I wanted to know. Thanks.

#4 Miklos

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Posted 25 May 2014 - 03:06 PM

Watch "Final - Milano goes to Stahleck 2014 - Game of Th…" on YouTube
Final - Milano goes to Stahleck 2014 - Game of Th…:

At 26:45 they start resolving their plots. Was this done correctly? I thought the palace of sorrows should have resolved in its entirety first and then red wedding, leaving no legal target and therefore nothing resolving. I just wish to understand what exactly occurred here.

Guys, just one question - maybe I was not paying attention - Martell on the right take 7 cards, do setup with 4 cards (3:37) then replenish 5 cards from the deck (3:48-3:54) ?


Edited by Miklos, 25 May 2014 - 03:30 PM.


#5 Khudzlin

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Posted 25 May 2014 - 11:41 PM

Looks like it.



#6 Kjun

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Posted 11 June 2014 - 08:15 PM

I thought mulligans you only draw 6?



#7 ktom

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Posted 11 June 2014 - 08:53 PM

Nope. I think that's the M:tG rule? The AGoT tournament rules allow a single "do over" mulligan of the full 7-card setup hand.

#8 Daenarys

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Posted 12 June 2014 - 06:27 AM

Has there been any discussion on the boards about the set up and the fact that it would appear 5 cards were drew to replace 4.

 

Genuine mistake anyone ?



#9 Khudzlin

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Posted 12 June 2014 - 06:32 AM

Nope. I think that's the M:tG rule? The AGoT tournament rules allow a single "do over" mulligan of the full 7-card setup hand.

 

Indeed, the M:tG rule is you can mulligan multiple times, taking one fewer card each time. Because of Rule by Decree, this would be a terrible idea for AGoT.



#10 Bomb

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Posted 12 June 2014 - 07:45 AM

Has there been any discussion on the boards about the set up and the fact that it would appear 5 cards were drew to replace 4.

 

Genuine mistake anyone ?

 

No more discussion than what I've seen posted here.

 

He does appear to take an extra card to me as well. 



#11 -Istaril

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Posted 12 June 2014 - 08:11 AM

Mistakes happen - they happen often, that late in the day. Even if it weren't, there's nothing that can be done about it at this point - so why fret over something you can do nothing about, and probably was just an accident anyway?






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